Infosys Verbal English and Reasoning Questions with Solutions 2018

Infosys Verbal Questions for On Campus Off Campus and Referral Drives

Here you can find Infosys Verbal Questions with Answers Infosys for 2018 Infosys, English Verbal Papers with Solutions, Infosys Verbal English Papers. The easiest scoring section for Infosys is Infosys Verbal Ability Questions with Answers.

For other topics from Infosys Previous Years Placements Papers visit main page for Infosys Placement Papers.

Infosys verbal Questions with solutions pdf

Infosys verbal english Aptitude Questions with Solutions – Reading

  • Reading Comprehension 
    • Number of Questions – 10
    • Difficulty – High
    • Average Time to Solve – 2 mins/ques
  • Sentence Correction
    • Number of Questions – 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 45 secs/ques
  • Sentence Completion
    • Number of Questions – 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 45 secs/ques

Summary of Section 

    • Total No. of Questions – 15
    • Importance in Test is Medium 
    • Difficulty level is also Medium 
    • Time required to solve is 50 – 60 Sec
Infosys Verbal Questions with Answers

Infosys verbal Questions with Answers – Vocabulary

  • Fill in the Blanks
    • Number of Questions – 0 or 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 45 secs/ques
  • One Word Substitution
    • Number of Questions – 0 or 2/3
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 45 secs/ques

Summary of Section

    • Total No. of Questions is  7 to 8
    • Importance in Test is Medium 
    • Difficulty level is also Medium 
    • Time required to solve is 45 – 50 Sec
Infosys Verbal Questions with Solutions PDF

iNFOSYS ENGLISH VERBAL SYLLABUS AND WRITTEN PAPER PATTERN – Analytical

  • Para Jumble
    • Number of Questions – 0 or 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 1 mins/ques
  • Spellings
    • Number of Questions – 0 or 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 1 mins/ques
  • Analogy
    • Number of Questions – 0 or 5
    • Difficulty – Medium
    • Average Time to Solve – 1 mins/ques

Summary of Section

    • Total No. of Questions is  16 to 18
    • Importance in Test is Medium 
    • Difficulty level is also Medium 
    • Time required to solve is 30 – 50 Sec
Infosys Placement Questions with Solutions Pdf

Infosys English verbal TEST PATTERN

Here you will find the Infosys Aptitude Syllabus and Paper Pattern

Infosys Verbal Questions Topics Number of Questions Time AllottedDifficulty Level in Infosys Verbal Questions Paper
Reading Comprehension
Sentence Correction
Sentence Completion
15 – 1650 – 60 secMedium
Fill in the Blanks
One Word Substitution
7 – 845 – 50 secHigh
Para Jumble
Spellings
Analogy
16 – 1830 – 60 secMedium

Tips for Infosys English Verbal Section –

It’s a known fact that Infosys extensively tests your verbal ability skills in their Aptitude test! A whooping 40 questions are asked from the Verbal Section.

Here we go!

2 Reading Comprehensions with 5 questions each is a sure shot topic in the upcoming drive. This accounts for 10 marks.

The remaining 30 questions are usually asked from the following topics:

  1. Sentence Correction/Sentence Improvement/Spot the Error – Approx 10 questions.
  2. Sentence Completion Filler (you must replace the underlined part of a sentence and insert the correct phrase from given options) – Approx 7 questions.
  3. Critical Reasoning/Theme Detection –  (Approx 6 questions).
  4. Fill in the blanks covering Grammar, one word substitution, Preposition, Idioms/Phrases etc (Approx 7 questions).

How should you approach the Verbal Section: Expert Tips

  • It is safe to attempt 30+ questions in the verbal section, so plan your strategy accordingly
  • You can start by attempting Sentence Correction/Spot the Errors questions followed by Vocabulary.
  • Next move to a lengthier Reading Comprehension Passage and answer all the referential questions.
  • Try to attempt 5 to 6 Critical Reasoning/Theme ie. Readining Comprehension questions within 10 minutes. This can be easily done if you practice solving more questions regularly.

Infosys PREPARATION RELATED FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS BY STUDENTS

Ques. Which the most difficult topic in Infosys Verbals Questions section?

Ans. The most difficult section in Infosys English Questions is Comprehension Ordering, which takes a lot of time to solve and is also incorrect most of the time.

Ques. Do we have Time per section in Infosys Verbal Ability Questions Paper?

Ans. Yes there is time per section for Infosys English Questions with Answers PDF. You need to attempt 40 Questions and the time given for that is 35 mins. Test will directly be submitted after which we get a minute of break and then you can attempt infosys verbal questions with answers.

Ques. Best Website to find Verbal Reasoning Questions and Answers pdf for Infosys?

Ans. You are at the best place to find Verbal Reasoning Questions for Infosys asked in Infosys Verbal Questions Papers.

Student Experiences for Infosys –

Infosys System Engineer Interview Questions | Interview Tips
Hope This Will Help You Guys For Infosys Drive

Questions asked in Infosys this month

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

It all started at the beginning of fifth grade. At first, Sarah wasn’t really sure what was happening. In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly. She had to do the same thing when she read street signs, or when she watched a movie. As the fuzziness got worse, she became more and more worried. It was important for her to see the notes and homework assignments the teacher put on the board.

It wasn’t long before Sarah found herself squinting all the time, but she didn’t want anyone to know that she was having a problem seeing. In class, she asked for a desk that was closer to the blackboard. One day, her teacher said, “Sarah, are you all right? I’ve noticed you squinting a lot. Are you having trouble seeing the board?”

Sarah shook her head. “I’m fine, Mrs.Cruz,” she said, but she knew she couldn’t pretend much longer.

At home, she had to sit closer and closer to the television in order to see the picture. Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favourite shows, and she began to get suspicious.

“Tomorrow I’m calling the eye doctor to set up an appointment for you,” she said firmly. Sarah protested, but her mother’s mind was made up.

Three days later, Sarah had new glasses and instructions from her doctor to wear them all the time. Sarah frowned in the car the whole way home. “All of the kids at school will think I’m a nerd,” she said. Her mother smiled and shook her head. “You look just as beautiful with those glasses on as you do without them,” she said. But Sarah didn’t believe her.  The next day, Sarah kept the glasses in her pocket as she walked into the schoolyard. She avoided her friends and stood alone, feeling miserable. Suddenly, she heard her friend Theresa shout. Sarah ran over to the other girls. “What’s wrong?” she asked. “My silver ring is gone!” Theresa cried. “My sister sent it to me from California. It’s very special and I can’t lose it!”

Sarah could tell that Theresa was very upset. They all looked for the ring in the grassy area of the playground.

Sarah realized that she could search better if she could see better. She took the glasses out of her pocket and put them on. The objects and people around her came into sharp focus. She caught her breath. Everything looked so different! So clear! She looked down at the ground and a glimmer of silver caught her eye. It was the ring. “Here it is,” she shouted. “I’ve found it!” She handed it to Theresa, and Theresa slipped the ring back on her finger.

“Thanks Sarah,” she said. “I never thought we’d find it.” She paused. “Hey, I didn’t know you wore glasses. They look great!” Sarah had forgotten that she was wearing the new glasses. “Thanks,” she replied shyly. As they walked back toward the school building, two more girls from her class complimented her glasses. Sarah smiled. “Maybe wearing glasses won’t be so bad after all,” she thought.

1. Before Sarah got glasses she
A) Thought having glasses wouldn’t be so bad.
B) Wasn’t able to see the blackboard clearly.
C) Found Theresa’s missing ring.
D) Sat far away from the television
Ans: B

2. Based on the end of the story, what do you think Sarah will do next?
A) She won’t tell her friends that she needs to wear glasses.
B) She will keep her glasses in her pocket where no one can see them.
C) She will wear her glasses all the time.
D) She will wear her glasses only when she is with her family.
Ans: C

3. Read this sentence from the story ‘Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favourite shows, and she began to get suspicious’. What is an antonym for the word suspicious?
A) Doubtful
B) Guilty
C) Innocent
D) Trusting
Ans: D

4. Which statement does best describe Sarah?
A) She is willing to overcome her fears in order to help her friends.
B) She doesn’t care how well she does in school.
C) She cares more about herself than her friends.
D) She doesn’t worry about what other people think of her.
Ans: A 

5. Read this sentence from the story. ‘In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly’. What does squint mean?
A) to look with eyes partly closed
B) to move closer
C) to try hard
D) to concentrate
Ans: D

1. These essays are intellectually …………… and represent various levels of complexity.

A) Revealing B) Modern C) persistent    D) demanding    E) persistent
Ans: C

2. It was almost impossible for him to put out of his mind the …………… words which he heard from his clever father-in-law
A) Inspiring B) witty C) sarcastic    D) soothing    E) exhortative
Ans: B

3. The integrity of character, honesty, dependability and discipline…………… with a genuine interest in your work will go a long way in the achievement of success in your professional life.
A) Coupled B) adjoined C) fixed    D) attached    E) joined
Ans: A

4. The soldiers were instructed to………………restraint and handle the situation peacefully.
A) Exercise B) control C) prevent    D) enforce    E) remain
Ans: A

5. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was one of the chief…………… of women’s rights.
A) Promoters B) facilitators C) instigators    D) organizers    E) protagonists
Ans: E

6. Her parents will never give their ………to such an unsuitable match.
A. willingness B. agreement C. consent       D. acquiescence
Ans: C

7. He is ……… dancer
A) a skilled B) an adept C) an adapt       D) an adopt
Ans: A

8. The degrees were awarded in the annual……………
A) conference B) convention C) Convolution        D) convocation
Ans: D

9. They ____________TV ever since they came home.
A) watched B) have watched C) have been watching                  D) should watch 
Ans: C

10. That is a moving story _______________.
A) that had survived the centuries.
B) that has survived the centuries.
C) which is survived by the centuries.
D) that is a survival in the centuries.
Ans: B

11. The girl _____________ a defect in her nervous system.
A) was unable in feeling pain because of
B) was disabled to feel pain in
C) was incapacitated to feel pain because of
D) was unable to feel pain because of
Ans: D

12. As soon as the plane ___________ to a hospital.
A) landed, he was rushed
B) was landing, he was rushed
C) was grounded, he was rushed
D) could be landed, he went rushing
Ans: A

13. The long, lone hours on the trail gave Doug a chance __________.
A) to get himself to know better.
B) for getting to know himself better.
C) to get to know himself better.
D) in getting better to know himself.
Ans: C

14. He had ___________ his face grow larger than they should.
A) a unique disease that made the bones from
B) a rare disease that made the bones of
C) an unnatural disease that will make the bones of
D) a special disease that made the bones in
Ans: B

15. When it comes to English grammar, she certainly ___________.
A) gets the wrong end of the stick.
B) rings a bell
C) knows her stuff
D) carries the can
Ans: C

16. You try to ____________ when you want to control your laughter.
A) put a brave face
B) make a face
C) keep your hair on
D) keep a straight face
Ans: D

17. With Justine’s ______ nature and passion for art, she would make an excellent tour guide for the museum.
A) volatile
B. congenial
C. servile
D. fledgeling
Ans: B

Direction 1 –  8: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer as one of the below:

A. if the inference is ‘ definitely true’ i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage
B. if the inference is ‘ probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
C. if you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
D. if you think the inference is ‘ probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts given;
E. if you think the inference is ‘ definitely false’ i.e, it contradicts the given facts.

Passage: A recent survey shows that India has the lowest death rate for blood cancer. China, Thailand and Myanmar (countries that have taste for spices) also have low rates. Higher rates are found in .S.A where spices are not used. The typical American food remains chicken rolls, butter and beef.

1. Americans are unorthodox in their food habits.
Ans: D

2. Americans dislike spices
Ans: C

3. Spices prevent blood cancer
Ans: A

4. Spices promote forms of cancer other than blood cancer.
Ans: C

5. Chicken rolls, butter and beef promote cancer.
Ans: A

Passage: The water resources of our country are very much underutilized. The main reason for this underutilization is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods and unwise use of water for irrigation as well as domestic purposes. We can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and by adopting the policy of awareness among people not to waste water.

6. The occurrence of floods adds to the water resources.
Ans: E

7. Some people do not use water resources in a judicious way.
Ans: A

8. The country does not have enough funds to develop water resources.
Ans: A

Directions 9 – 14: For each question in this section, select the best of the answer choices given

Cordon Pharmaceuticals launched the wonder drug “Cordox” that was supposed to help asthma patients. It entered the market with a ‘big bang’ amidst great rejoicing from asthma patients and doctors. It replaced the old drug that was being given to asthma patients via injection mode. Cordox did not have problems like patient compliance and cumbersome delivery mode. However, within 12-18 months, 85% of Cordox users developed severe side effects including joint pains, nausea, and weakness.

9. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
A) Cordox should now be banned as a bad drug.
B) Cordon Pharmaceuticals did not conduct an extensive clinical trial before launching Cordox.
C) The old drug company deliberately cooked up statistics to bring down Cordon.
D) Those who developed side effects did not follow the instructions.
Ans: B

Many religions do not encourage female priests to preside over religious ceremonies. It is very rare to see female Hindu priests in temples as it is to see a female Bishop or a female Mullah. A group of radical Islamic feminists changed the map of the daily prayers in Islam when a woman professor in a university took charge as a mullah. This action raised the hackles of the community and led to a furore.

10. Which of the following statements can be deduced from the above passage?
A) Religion like other aspects of life is also male-dominated.
B) Men are chauvinistic and oppose change.
C) Feminists are the only ones who can fight for equal rights.
D) Female priests are not as capable as male priests.
Ans: A

While reading a book with raised alphabets for the blind, the young French boy Louis Braille thought that there must be a way for a blind person to quickly feel the words on a page. There must be a way for a blind person to read as quickly and as easily as a sighted person. That day he set himself the goal of thinking up a system for blind people to read. He would try to think of some alphabet code to make his ‘finger reading’ as quick and easy as sighted reading, and thus he invented the Braille System.

11. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
A) Blind people cannot follow the common alphabet.
B) Louis Braille was brilliant though blind.
C) Blind people have to put up with inconveniences.
D) Louis Braille’s invention justifies the saying that necessity is the mother of invention.
Ans: D

Tom and Jerry is the enduring cartoon show of a cat and a mouse. The cat is always chasing the mouse and the mouse always manages to outwit the cat. The show is popular and is viewed across the world. The cat and mouse duo are extremely popular among all age groups.

12. Which of the following statements is a false assumption, as understood from the paragraph?
A) Language barrier is not an issue when it comes to popular cartoons.
B) People do not like to watch any other cartoons.
C) Even adults enjoy the Tom and Jerry show.
D) The duo’s antics are enjoyed by most people.
Ans: B

Penicillin is one of the strongest and most potent antibiotics. It has saved many lives in the past when people used to die of wound infections. It is available in the form of tablets and injection solutions.  It is given to most patients before a surgery. Some patients, however, do not tolerate penicillin.

13. Which of the following statements is a logical conclusion to the above?
A) Some people have an aversion to penicillin.
B) It is not as powerful an antibiotic as it is believed to be.
C) Some people are allergic to penicillin.
D) There are better alternatives available.
Ans: C

Rakesh was on a trip to the dense jungles of Sunderbans. The Sunderbans is the home of the Royal Bengal Tiger known for its ferocity and power. The local people show him around and insist on him wearing a mask at the back of his head.

14. Which of the following can be inferred to be true?
A) The local people force tourists to follow their customs.
B) The heat is unbearable if one does not wear a mask behind the head.
C) The tiger is known for attacking people from behind.
D) The tiger will not come unless it senses a mask.
Ans: C

Direction 1 – 8: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’.

1. (A) My father is / (B) in bad mood / (C) today. / (D) No error
Ans: B

2. (A) Both the civilians/ (B) and army men / (C) joined the First World War today. / (D) No error
Ans: B

3. (A) The school is / (B) with in hundred yards / (C) from my house / (D) no error
Ans: B

4. (A) As soon as the teacher entered / (B) everyone fell / (C) in a silence / (D) no error
Ans: C

5. (A) He took to / (B) reading Times / (C) for better knowledge of the facts./ (D) no error
Ans: B

6. (A) I will put on / (B) a note in this regard / (C) for your consideration / (D) and necessary decision./ (E) no error
Ans: A

7. (A) He has been working on / (B) the problem from a long time / (C) but is still not / (D) able to solve it./ (E) no error
Ans: E

8. He took to (A) / reading Times (B) / for better knowledge (C) / of the facts (D) / No error (E)
Ans: B

Directions 1 – 8: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is ‘No correction required’.

1. He did many mischiefs.
A) made many a mischiefs
B) made much mischief
C) Committed many mischiefs     
D) No Correction required
Ans: C

2. Rohit is as fast as or perhaps faster than Manish.
A) Equally fast
B) almost as fast
C) as fast       
D) No Correction required
Ans: C

3. All his family members are in Kanpur.
A) All of his family members
B) All the family members of his
C) All the members of his family
D) No Correction required
Ans: C

4. I often see him dancing the top.
A) rotating
B) encircling
C) dodging
D) No Correction required
Ans: D

5. What is the time in your watch?
A) on        B) by       C) from      D) No Correction required
Ans: C

6. Columbus invented America.
A) searched     B)   traced     C) discovered      D) No Correction required
Ans: C

7. Wise men catch time by the forelock.
A) Hold      B) seize     C) take         D) No Correction required
Ans: B

8. A bird in hand is worth two in bush.
A) two in the bush      B) two at a bush    C) two on bush        D) No Correction required  
Ans: A

Directions Questions 9 – 14: Identify the correct sentence

9. A) As he continued to walk, he came across some hawthorn trees in bloom.
    B) Because he continued his walking he came upon some hawthorn trees in bloom.
    C) As he continued to walk, he looked upon some hawthorn trees in bloom.
     D) When he has continued to walk he got around some hawthorn trees in bloom.
Ans: A because ‘To look upon’ and ‘came upon’ are incorrect. Similarly, ‘when he has continued to walk’, is inappropriate in terms of tense usage.

10. A) A consumer reports magazine assessed the relative pesticide contents of organically and conventionally grown produce and found that in many fruits and vegetables the difference was imperceptible.
     B) A consumer reports magazine relatively assessed pesticide contents of organically and conventionally grown produce and found that among many fruits and vegetables the difference was imperceptible.
     C) A consumer reports magazine was assessing the relative pesticide contents of organically and conventionally grown produce to find out that for many fruits and vegetables the difference was unobtrusive.
     D) A consumer reports magazine should assess the related pesticide contents of organically and conventionally grown produce and found that for many fruits and vegetables the difference was negligible.
Ans: A because of the consistency in the tense usage.

11. A) As the level of education goes up, the percentage of reservation of seats must be progressively reduced.
     B) As the level of education can go up, the percentage of reserved seats must be progressively reduced.
     C) As the level of education goes up, the percentage in reserved seats must be aggressively reduced.
     D) As the level of education goes up, the percentage of reserved seats must be progressively reduced.
Ans: D because it is ‘the percentage of reserved seats’ not ‘the percentage in’ or ‘the reservation of seats’.

12. A) The affidavit detailed the measures taken against the state for the welfare of the children of the salt workers and for providing them with an adequate number of schools and teachers on a priority basis.
      B) The affidavit has details of the measures taken by the state for the welfare of the salt workers children and by providing them with an adequate number of schools and teachers on a priority basis.
     C) The affidavit detailed the measures taken by the state for the welfare of the children of the salt workers and for providing them with an adequate number of schools and teachers on a priority basis.
     D) The detailed affidavit measures the steps taken against the state for the welfare of the children of the salt workers and for the provision of with an adequate number of schools and teachers on a priority basis.
Ans: C because it is ‘the steps taken by the state’ not ‘against’ the state.

13. A) Large-scale misuse of central funds have widened the gap between the haves and the have-nots resultant in frustration especially among the youngsters.
      B) Large-scale misuse of central funds has widened the gap between the haves and the have-nots resulting in frustration especially among the youngsters.
     C) Large-scale misuse with central funds has widened the gap among the haves and the have-nots with resultant frustration especially among the youngsters.
     D)  Large-scale misuse of central funds have widened the gap between the haves and the have-nots so as to result in frustration especially among the youngsters.
Ans: B because it is ‘Misuse of’ not ‘misuse with’. ‘Misuse has widened’ not ‘have widened’.

14. A) The world of modeling consists of ramp, print and commercials but due to market demands and competition, the thin line of demarcation among them is blurring.
      B) The world of modeling consists of ramp, print and commercials but due to a demanding market and competition the thin line of demarcation between them is blurring.
      C) The world of modeling consists with ramp, print and commercials but when the market demands competition, the thin line of demarcation between them is blurring.
      D) The modeling world of ramp, print and commercials due to market demands show competition with the thin line of demarcation between them having blurred.
Ans: A because it is unambiguous and consistent. When more than two things are compared, “among” is the correct conjunction and not “between”.

1. An extremely deep crack or opening in the ground.
A) Chasm
B) Aperture
C) Ditch
D) Pit
Ans: A

2. A person of good understanding of knowledge and reasoning power.
A) Snob
B) Intellectual
C) Expert
D) Literate
Ans: B

3. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool.
A) Imbecility
B) Senility
C) Dotage
D) Superannuation
Ans: C

4. A place that provides refuge
A) Sanatorium
B) Asylum
C) Shelter
D) Orphanage
Ans: B

5. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river’s bank?
A) Isthmus
B) Archipelago
C) Hinterland
D) Swamps
Ans: C

6. A disease of mind causing an uncontrollable desire to steal
A) Schizophrenia
B) Claustrophobia
C) Kleptomania
D) Megalomania
Ans: C

7. Giving undue favors to one’s own kith and kin
A) Favouritism
B) Nepotism
C) Wordliness
D) Corruption
Ans: B

8. Hater of learning and knowledge?
A) Mixologist
B) Bibliophile
C) Misogynist
D) Misanthropist
Ans: A

5. Read this sentence from the story. ‘In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly’. What does squint mean?
A) to look with eyes partly closed
B) to move closer
C) to try hard
D) to concentrate
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

 Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light.  Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.

Lamps, too, probably developed by accident.  Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fibre burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass.  All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain fat and float a lighted reed in it.  Such lamps, which are made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical from up to quite recent times.

6. Primitive man’s most important use for five was
A) To provide warmth B) to cook food C) to provide light    D) Both  A and B.
Ans: A

7. The firebrand was used to
A) Prevent accidents B) provide light C) scare animals    D) save labour
Ans: B

8. By ‘primary’ the author means
A) Primitive B) fundamental C) elemental    D) essential
Ans: D

9. Lamps probably developed through mere
A) Hazard B) fate C) chance    D) planning
Ans: C

10. Early lamps were made by
A) Using a reed as a wick in the fat
B) letting a reed soak the fat
C) putting the fat in a shell and lighting it
D) floating a reed in the sea-shell
Ans: A

Directions 11 – 15: Read the following passage below and answer the questions that follow on the basis of what is stated/ implied in that passage.

A microwave oven is a kitchen appliance employing microwave radiation primarily to cook or heat food. Microwave ovens have revolutionized cooking since their use became widespread in the 1970s.

Cooking food with microwaves was discovered by Percy Spencer while building magnetrons for radar sets at Raytheon. He was working on an active radar set when he noticed a strange sensation and saw that a peanut candy bar he had in his pocket started to melt. Although he was not the first to notice this phenomenon, as the holder of 120 patents, Spencer was no stranger to discovery and experiment and realized what was happening. The radar had melted his candy bar with microwaves. The first food to be deliberately cooked with microwaves was popcorn, and the second was an egg (which exploded in the face of one of the experimenters). In North America, microwave popcorn is now one of the most commonly cooked items in microwave ovens, virtually to the exclusion of other home cooking methods such as hot air and oil popping. Most microwaves sold in North America today have a specific “popcorn button” which is solely used to cook premeasured packages of popcorn, ostensibly to make it easier for consumers to microwave popcorn without worrying about burning it or leaving a lot of kernels unpopped. The standard time for the “popcorn” setting on most microwaves is about three minutes.

On 8 October 1945 Raytheon filed a patent for Spencer’s microwave cooking process and in 1947; the company built the first microwave oven, the Radarange. It was almost 6 feet (1.8 m) tall and weighed 750 pounds (340 kg). It was water-cooled and produced 3000 watts, about three times the amount of radiation produced by microwave ovens today. An early commercial model introduced in 1954 generated 1600 watts and sold for $2,000 to $3,000. Raytheon licensed its technology to the Tappan Stove company in 1952. They tried to market a large, 220 volt, wall unit as a home microwave oven in 1955 for a price of $1,295, but it did not sell well. In 1965 Raytheon acquired Amana, which introduced the first popular home model, the countertop Radarange in 1967 at a price point of $495.

In the 1960s, Litton bought Studebaker’s Franklin Manufacturing assets, which had been manufacturing magnetrons and building and selling microwave ovens similar to the Radarange. Litton then developed a new configuration of the microwave, the short, wide shape that is now common. The magnetron feed was also unique. This resulted in an oven that could survive a no-load condition indefinitely. The new oven was shown at a trade show in Chicago and helped begin a rapid growth of the market for home microwave ovens. Sales figures of 40,000 units for the US industry in 1970 grew to one million by 1975. Market penetration in Japan, which had learned to build less expensive units by re-engineering a cheaper magnetron, was more rapid.

A number of other companies joined in the market, and for a time most systems were built by defence contractors, who were the most familiar with the magnetron. Litton was particularly well known in the restaurant business. By the late 1970s, the technology had improved to the point where prices were falling rapidly. Formerly found only in large industrial applications, “microwaves” were increasingly becoming a standard fixture of most kitchens. The rapidly falling price of microprocessors also helped by adding electronic controls to make the ovens easier to use. By the late 1980s, they were almost universal, and current estimates hold that nearly 95% of American households have a microwave.

A microwave oven works by passing microwave radiation, usually at a frequency of 2450 MHz (a wavelength of 12.24 cm), through the food. Water, fat, and sugar molecules in the food absorb energy from the microwave beam in a process called dielectric heating. Most molecules are electric dipoles, meaning that they have a positive charge at one end and a negative charge at the other, and therefore vibrate as they try to align themselves with the alternating electric field induced by the microwave beam. This molecular movement creates heat. Microwave heating is most efficient on liquid water, and much less so on fats, sugars, and frozen water. Microwave heating is sometimes incorrectly explained as the resonance of water molecules, which only occurs at much higher frequencies, in the tens of gigahertz.

Most microwave ovens allow the user to choose between several power levels, including one or more defrosting levels. In most ovens, however, there is no change in the intensity of the microwave radiation; instead, the magnetron is turned on and off in cycles of several seconds at a time. This can actually be observed when microwaving airy foods like Krembos (An Israeli confection): it blows up during heating phases, while it deflates when the magnetron is turned off.

The cooking chamber itself is a Faraday cage enclosure which prevents the microwaves from escaping into the environment. The oven door is usually a glass panel for easy viewing but has a layer of conductive mesh to maintain the shielding. Because the size of the perforations in the mesh is much less than the wavelength of 12 cm, the microwave radiation can not pass through the door, while visible light (with a much shorter wavelength) can.  

Professional chefs generally find microwave ovens to be of limited usefulness. On the other hand, people who are lacking in free time, or not comfortable with their cooking skills, can use microwave ovens to reheat stored food (including commercially available pre-cooked frozen dishes) in only a few minutes.

11. The central theme of the passage is
A) The Technique of Microwave Cooking.
B) Microwave Technology in Ovens.
C) Commercial Microwave Ovens and its Uses.
D) The Discovery, Development, and Uses of Microwave Ovens.
Ans: D

12. According to the passage, it can be inferred that
A) the microwave revolution became widespread in the 1970s.
B) the microwave technique of cooking was more of an ‘accidental discovery’.
C) Spencer holds the highest number of technology patents.
D) popcorn is the most popular snack in America.
Ans: B

13. According to the passage:
A) In most ovens, the intensity of the microwave radiation cannot be altered.
B) Fats and sugars are best cooked by microwave ovens.
C) Microwave heating is the vibration of water molecules.
D) None of these
Ans: A

14. According to the passage
A) Amana’s countertop Radarange priced at $495 was the most popular model.
B) hot air and oil popping methods of cooking popcorn is still used.
C) microwave ovens were fitted with easy-to-use electronic controls due to the availability of cheaper microprocessors.
D) Japan manufactures the highest number of microwave ovens.
Ans: C

15. Litton’s new microwave oven
A) resembled the one that is used commonly now.
B) had a unique magnetron feed.
C) could work on the no-load condition indefinitely.
D) All of the above.
Ans: D

Directions 16 – 20: Read the following passage below and answer the questions that follow on the basis of what is stated/ implied in that passage.

In almost all the modern opinions of women, it is curious to observe how many lies have to be assumed before a case can be made. A young lady flies from England to Australia; another wins an air race; a Duchess creates a speed record in reaching India; others win motoring trophies, and now the King’s prize for marksmanship has gone to a woman. All of which is very interesting and possibly praiseworthy as means of spending one’s leisure time; and if it was left to that, even if no more were added than the perfectly plain fact that such feats could not have been achieved by their mothers and grandmothers, we would be content to doff our hats to the ladies with all courtesy and respect which courage, endurance and ability have always rightly demanded.

But it is not left to that, and considerably more is added. It is suggested, for example, that the tasks were beyond the mothers and grandmothers, nor for the very obvious reason that they had no motorcars and aeroplanes in which to amuse their leisure hours, but because women were then enslaved by the convention of natural inferiority to man. Those days, we are told, “in which women were held incapable of positive social achievements” are gone forever. It does not seem to have occurred to this critic that the very fact of being a mother or grandmother indicates a certain positive social achievement; the achievement of which, indeed, probably left little leisure for travelling airily about the hemispheres. The same critic goes on to state, with all the solemn emphasis of profound thought, that “the important thing is not that women are the same as men — that is a fallacy — but that they are just as valuable to society as men. Equality of citizenship means that there are twice as many heads to solve present-day problems as there were to solve the problems of the past. And two heads are better than one.” And the dreadful proof of the modern collapse of all that was meant by man and wife and the family council is that this sort of imbecility can be taken seriously.

The London Times, in a studied leading article, points out that the first emancipators of women (whoever they were) had no idea what lay in store for future generations. “Could they have foreseen it, they might have disarmed much opposition by pointing to the possibilities, not only of freedom but of equality and fraternity also.”

And we ask, what does it all mean? What in the name of all that is graceful and dignified does fraternity with women mean? What nonsense, or worse, is indicated by the freedom and equality of the sexes?

We mean something quite definite when we speak of a man being a little free with the ladies. What definite freedom is meant when the freedom of women is proposed? If it merely means the right to free opinions, the right to vote independently of fathers and husbands, what possible connection does it have with the freedom to fly to Australia or score bulls-eyes at Bisley? If it means, as we fear it does, freedom from responsibility of managing a home and a family, an equal right with men in business and social careers, at the expense of home and family, then such progress we can only call progressive deterioration.

And for men too, there is, according to a famous authoress, a hope of freedom. Men are beginning to revolt, we are told, against the old tribal custom of desiring fatherhood. The male is casting off the shackles of being a creator and a man. When all are sexless there will be equality. There will be no women and no men. There will be but a fraternity, free and equal. The only consoling thought is that it will endure but for one generation. 

16. In Chesterton’s opinion,
A) The modern women are better because they can perform feats that were beyond the purview of their predecessors.
B) Women are not capable of significant achievement in their social lives
C) All deliberations on women’s achievements are, at best, the means of occupying one’s free time.
D) The equality that ignores family values cannot be accepted as progress in the real sense of the word.
Ans: D

17. From the tone of the passage, it can be inferred that the author,
i. does not approve of women engaging in daring and adventurous feats.
ii.  is quite sceptical about the need for freedom and fraternity of both sexes.
iii. feels that, as more and more women claim equality, there are fortunately more people to help solve everyday problems.
A) i & ii          B) ii & iii            C) iii only            D) i only
Ans: A

18. “The only consoling thought is that it will endure but for one generation.” ‘It’ in this sentence refers to
A) Man’s revolt against fatherhood.
B) Women desiring equality and fraternity.
C) The desire for freedom among women to express their opinions freely.
D) A sexless society that gives equal opportunities to both men and women.
Ans: D

19. ‘Progressive deterioration’ means
A) A steady fall in the standards and moral values of society.
B) A compromise of sexes achieved through equality and freedom.
C) A progress that ignores the essential norms of family and home.
D) A man being a little too free with women.
Ans: C

20. Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
A) Our mothers and grandmothers had no time to think of travelling because of family commitments.
B) Women started revolting against the inferior treatment meted out to them, in their pursuit for social recognition.
C) Men yearn for freedom from parenting even more than women do.
D) Emancipation of women can bring about good and lasting solutions to all problems.
Ans: A